Hyperphosphatemia: Clinical Complications
and Management in 1998

University of Minnesota
CME Internet Program

Posttest

To earn CME credits, print this form using File Print or the Print button on your browser menu, along with the enrollment and evaluation forms. Complete these forms (indicating your answers directly on the printed sheet) and mail them to:

University of Minnesota
Office of Continuing Medical Education
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Minneapolis, MN 55414

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Forms must be received by December 30, 1999 to earn credits. A score of at least 80% on the posttest is necessary to earn credits.

1. What percentage of dietary phosphorus typically undergoes absorption in the jejunum and duodenum?

A) 60% to 70%
B) 5% to 10%
C) 100%
D) 20%

2. Calciphylaxis is associated with all of the following conditions except:

A) Calcium overload
B) Severe hyperparathyroidism
C) Obesity
D) Hypocalcemia

3. Why are hemodialysis patients commonly in a state of net positive phosphorus balance?

A) Removal of phosphorus by conventional dialysis is inadequate
B) Current phosphate binders prevent only a portion of dietary phosphorus absorption
C) A low phosphorus diet is difficult to achieve and still maintain adequate protein intake
D) All of the above

4. Compared to conventional hemodialysis, nocturnal hemodialysis has the potential to maintain phosphorus balance. How?

A) Nocturnal hemodialysis removes more phosphorus per session compared to conventional hemodialysis
B) The dialysate flow rate during nocturnal hemodialysis is much slower than conventional hemodialysis.
C) The cumulative weekly phosphate removal is significantly higher with nocturnal hemodialysis compared to conventional hemodialysis.
D) The surface area of the dialyzer used for nocturnal hemodialysis is much smaller.

5. A minimum dietary protein intake of 1 to 1.2 g/kg/d provides about how much phosphorus intake?

A) 250 to 500 mg (8 mmol to 16 mmol)
B) 500 to 750 mg (16 to 24 mmol)
C) 750 to 1,000 mg (24 to 32 mmol)
D) 1,000 to 1,300 mg (32 to 40 mmol)

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